1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
• operating system versions
2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.
8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester
10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base
11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application
12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical
16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15
18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer
19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7
20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
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Thứ Ba, 31 tháng 3, 2009
CCNA 4 - Chapter 8
. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening
7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP
14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.
19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated
alternate
CopyRight: http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%207
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening
7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP
14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.
19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated
alternate
CopyRight: http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%207
CCNA 4 - Chapter 7
1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
T CopyRight:http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%206
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
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CCNA 4 - Chapter 6
. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface
3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address
4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound
11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15
13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.
14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based
15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.
20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.
26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.
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• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface
3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address
4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound
11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15
13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.
14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based
15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.
20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.
26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.
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CCNA 4 - Chapter 5
1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface
3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address
4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound
11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15
13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.
14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based
15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.
20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.
26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface
3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address
4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound
11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.
12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15
13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.
14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based
15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.
20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.
26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.
CCNA 4 - Chapter 4
1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
• hardware for leased service.
2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
• logical address used to identify the DCE
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
• ISDN circuit
• limited access circuit
• switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network?
• (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP
6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.
8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the
• router?
• It helps to conserve IP addresses.
• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.
9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.
11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
• It is currently not transmitting data.
• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.
14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
• subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.
15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
• one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface
16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
• coupled with the broadcast keyword.
• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
• nodes.
• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
• Split horizon must be disabled.
• The LMI type must be specified.
• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
• R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301
19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
• LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
R CopyRight: http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%203
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
• hardware for leased service.
2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
• logical address used to identify the DCE
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
• ISDN circuit
• limited access circuit
• switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network?
• (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP
6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.
8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the
• router?
• It helps to conserve IP addresses.
• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.
9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.
11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
• It is currently not transmitting data.
• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.
14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
• subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.
15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
• one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface
16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
• coupled with the broadcast keyword.
• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
• nodes.
• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
• Split horizon must be disabled.
• The LMI type must be specified.
• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
• R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301
19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
• LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
R CopyRight: http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%203
CCNA 4 - Chapter 3
1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
• hardware for leased service.
2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
• logical address used to identify the DCE
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
• ISDN circuit
• limited access circuit
• switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network?
• (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP
6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.
8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the
• router?
• It helps to conserve IP addresses.
• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.
9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.
11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
• It is currently not transmitting data.
• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.
14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
• subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.
15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
• one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface
16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
• coupled with the broadcast keyword.
• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
• nodes.
• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
• Split horizon must be disabled.
• The LMI type must be specified.
• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
• R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301
19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
• LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
CopyRight : http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%204%20-%20Chapter%203
• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
• hardware for leased service.
2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
• logical address used to identify the DCE
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
• ISDN circuit
• limited access circuit
• switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network?
• (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP
6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.
8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the
• router?
• It helps to conserve IP addresses.
• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.
9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.
11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
• It is currently not transmitting data.
• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.
14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
• subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.
15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
• one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface
16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
• coupled with the broadcast keyword.
• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
• nodes.
• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
• Split horizon must be disabled.
• The LMI type must be specified.
• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
• R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301
19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
• LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast
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